Posted by Stan Besaw on November 16, 2002 at 22:59:38:
In Reply to: Why is "Whip It" considered a 2nd position riff? posted by Bob on November 14, 2002 at 18:55:36:
The riff doesn't resolve on the 4 blow, it instead rests there and creates some tension while the under lying chord change is on the IV chord. Music, like any kind of art form, is about tension and release. Whip it ultimately ends (or resolves on the 2 draw which is the key to song). I use to play this song in a cover band in the early 80's and became fairly familar with it. Devo, or Mark Mothersbaugh (the main songwriter), tends to write a lot of music that temporarily resolves on the IV chord.
: The tabs section of this site lists "Whip It" as a second position riff. Wouldn't it be considered a first position riff since it resolves on the 4 blow? Can someone shed some light?
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